Colonel Mustard is not in the Library with a copyright claim form

My friend Sym came up with a neat joke:

Playing Big Society Cluedo. It's easier than normal Cluedo because there isn't a library.

and promptly tweeted it. Much retweeted it ended up being used by the BBC's Now Show, without attribution of any kind. Sym is a generous soul and I doubt that worried him too much but he mentioned it on his (private) facebook wall.

As regular readers will know I'm not exactly a copyright maximalist, but I do find it unattractive that large and powerful organisations that would certainly pursue you if you used their intellectual property appear to be quite happy to use other people's so long as those other people are too small to matter very much. I jokingly suggested I'd help draft his claim form and that lead him to wondering whether there could be any copyright in so slight a thing as a tweeted joke.

Unsurprisingly there are lots of answers on the internet, as a cursory google search will show. One site says categorically "no"; an article in the WIPO magazine thinks "it depends" and there's even a site called canyoucopyrightatweet.com written by a US attorney which again comes down on the side of "it depends". Unfortunately all the really detailed discussion relates to US law, not European or English law. While there's some internationally harmonisation of copyright, there are still significant differences.

So, what of English law. Well, English copyright protects, amongst other things any "original literary work". Most tweets are not going to be original - in fact in many cases that is the whole point - but some, like Sym's joke, seem quite capable of being so. Certainly, I am quite sure that he came up with the joke first.

A "literary work" does not have to be high art. Indeed section 3 of the Copyright, Designs and Patents Act 1988 says that a

“literary work” means any work, other than a dramatic or musical work, which is written, spoken or sung

so its really quite a broad term. In a relatively recent case which rejected a claim for copyright in the names of commands for an airline booking system, Mr Justice Pumfrey was quite clear that single words, at least on their own, could not be copyrighted. In the 2009 Infopaq case, the European Court of Justice were prepared to accept that an 11 word textual extract could be the subject of copyright and last year in the case of Meltwater Mrs Justice Proudman agreed that, whatever might have been the position under English law, the decision in Infopaq made it plain that as a matter of European law copyright could exist in newspaper headlines provided they were original enough.

So it seems to me that a tweet, provided it is sufficiently original, can be the subject of copyright.

But as I said in an earlier post the existence of copyright is only half the question. What would or would not infringe a short humorous tweet? I haven't heard the particular episode of the Now Show in question but if they read it out they have certainly infringed (and twitter's terms of service don't appear to let them off the hook). If, on the other hand, they only paraphrased the joke, the question is more difficult. Sym might be able to claim ownership of the particular expression of his joke, but he cannot copyright the idea that lies behind it. That idea is free and open to all.

The difficulty with this neat distinction (called the "idea/expression dichotomy") is that courts recognise that you can infringe by copying something more abstract than the exact words used. This should be obvious when you consider that a translation of a work (which will usually use quite different words, unless its into "pirate") is a potential infringement of the original work. Too close a copy of the plot or characterisation in a play (say) would be an infringement even if there had been a good deal of rewriting and reworking.

How on earth this would apply to something as small and neat as a tweet is anybody's guess. I suspect that it is only a matter of time before someone tries to test the question.

UPDATE

In the comments, Sym has helpfully provided the quote from the Now Show:

Someone amused me no end on twitter the other day, ok, when they answered twitter's question 'what are you doing?' by writing: "I'm playing big society cluedo, it's easier than normal cluedo because there isn't a library"

Clearly, if there is copyright in the tweet, this looks like a potential infringement because the whole tweet has been copied pretty much verbatim. But, could there be a defence. There is, of course, no such thing as "fair use" in English law. But quoting a tweet could be "fair dealing for purposes of criticism or review" which is a defence under section 30 of the Copyright, Designs and Patents Act 1988. This requires that:

• the use is fair dealing
• the purpose of the use is criticism or review of a work (not necessarily the work quoted) or works
• the use is accompanied by sufficient acknowledgement

Normally it would not be "fair dealing" to use the whole of a work, but where the work is as short as a tweet it is likely to be impossible to use it critically in any meaningful way without quoting the whole of it. "Someone amused me" probably counts as "criticism".

What about attribution? Section 178 of the act defines "sufficient acknowledgement" as "an acknowledgement identifying the work in question by its title or other description, and identifying the author". "Someone" doesn't seem like enough to me. Although its just possible to argue that "Someone" means "Someone on twitter" and that it is thereby possible identify the author by searching on twitter for the origin of the tweet. Seems like a long shot to me.

Update: I realise with some embarrassment that I didn't link to Lillian Edward's blogpost on this very question.

Don't return your census form early

This seems a topic that has generated much discussion, so I thought I'd comment on it.

In the United Kingdom we are having a census on Sunday 27th March 2011. It can be completed online or by sending back a census form that has been delivered to most households by now. The census is being carried out by the Office for National Statistics (ONS). Their website says, under the heading "When to return the questionnaire":

Census day is Sunday 27 March. Your answers should be about your household on this day. Please submit or return your completed questionnaire before, on or after this date.

On any analysis that seems a bit odd. Surely you should only be returning your census form after the date of the census since, though you can have a pretty good guess what the answers to the many questions might be, you can't know for certain.

As far as I can see, the ONS is simply wrong to suggest that early return is OK. This Census is governed by the Census (England) Regulations 2010, regulation 10 of which states:

10.—(1) Every prescribed person to whom a household pack has been delivered or on whose behalf delivery was taken under these Regulations must, on the day after census day or as soon after as is reasonably practicable—

(a)complete the copy of questionnaire H1 included in the pack, place it in the reply-paid envelope provided and send the questionnaire to the Authority by post; or

(b)return the information requested by questionnaire H1 electronically using such an electronic system as the Authority may provide for this purpose and in accordance with the instructions included in the accompanying pack.

Which quite clearly does not allow an early census return. Failure to comply with regulation 10 is made a criminal offence (albeit a very minor one) by section 8 of the Census Act 1920. There doesn't appear to be, in the regulations or the act, any power for the ONS to disapply these provisions or vary when the census returns may be made.

I'm not a census lawyer, so maybe I'm missing something here. What's more I doubt that it would be easy to prosecute someone for doing what the ONS has precisely told them to do. It still seems to me to be an odd way to run a census.

Phone hacking and copyright

Hugo at the 1709 blog asks a question about a recent case involving 2 of those who may have been victims in the News of the World phone hacking affair (as wikipedia calls it). Before I try to answer the question, some background.

From information obtained from the Metropolitan Police, Andrew Gray and Steve Coogan both suspected that their voicemail had been accessed by Glenn Mulcaire, the private investigator at the centre of the affair. They sued him — apparently for breach of confidence.

The claimants felt that the Mr Mulcaire's defence left a lot more questions unanswered. For example who had instructed him to intercept voicemails; to whom had he passed on the information; and who else had he been targeting. In order to press him further they each made a request for information asking him a number of questions which, unsurprisingly, he did not appear to wish to answer. In order to resist answering the claimants' requests, Mr Mulcaire relied on the common law right not to be required to answer questions that might incriminate oneself.

The right, known as the "privilege against self-incrimination" is not an absolute one. There are a number of statutory exceptions to it. For example section 31 of the Theft Act 1968 prevents someone from relying on the privilege in proceedings for recovery of property (where things they say might well implicate them in a charge of theft). In a similar manner, section 72 of the Senior Courts Act 1981, lifts the privilege in "proceedings for infringement of rights pertaining to any intellectual property or for passing off".

The phrase "intellectual property" means different things to different people and is much misused. There is no single statutory definition either. I found it interested to read that the court was shown a sample of 20 different enactments where "intellectual property" is defined in different ways and for different purposes and, in the Income Tax Act 2007, in three different parts of the same act. In section 72 it is defined thus:

"intellectual property" means any patent, trade mark, copyright, design right, registered design, technical or commercial information or other intellectual property;

Now the defendants contended that "commercial information" meant only commercial information which was protectable as intellectual property (for which see the other items in the list). The claimants (correctly in my view) said this didn't make sense — obviously what was meant was an extended definition to include "normal" intellectual property of the kind we are used to talking about such as copyright but extended to cover things that would normally not be treated as intellectual property, such as commercial information.

Mr Justice Vos agreed. The defendant lost his privilege and the claimants were allowed to ask some of their questions. Others, the judge thought, were not strictly relevant and constituted "a fishing expedition" (as lawyers call it). An earlier and very similar case, this time involving Nicola Phillips as the victim, had already been decided in the same way and headed to the Court of Appeal. The hope is that all three cases will be joined on appeal and a decision given.

Given how topical phone hacking has been, and the fact that many readers of this blog are involved in industries where confidential information could be intercepted wrongly, I thought this was an interesting case to talk about.

Now to Hugo's question. He asks the question that may be in some of your lips: why didn't the claimants bring a claim for infringement of copyright? Then there would have been no doubt about the application of section 72 and no need to have the argument in the first place. He asks:

Could the claimants simply have relied on the argument that Mulcaire had in any case infringed copyright in sound recordings by recording and transcribing the voicemails? Copyright in sound recordings is owned by their ‘producer’, who is ‘the person by whom the arrangements necessary for the making of the sound recording are undertaken’. Would this be Steve Coogan and Andrew Gray – or would it be Vodafone?

Note that we aren't interested in copyright in the words that were recorded on the victims' voice mail. Even if they qualified for copyright protection — one assumes that "hi, its me" probably does not, whereas something with more substance probably does — the person who left the message would be the author of the words and therefore the copyright would belong to the caller or their employer.

Copyright does protect sound recordings, though for a shorter period than copyright in literary, musical or dramatic works. As Hugo points out, section 9 of the Copyright Act makes the "producer" of a sound recording its "author" (and therefore potential first owner of the copyright) and section 178 gives us the definition.

The nearest authority I can think of is A&M Records v Video Collection International [1995] EMLR 25 which concerned the ownership of an arrangement of "Let's Face the Music and Dance" created for Torvill and Dean's 1994 competition entry. The skater's agent asked a conductor to do the job. He found an arranger, paid for an arrangement of the work suitable for the skaters and then conducted it in a studio he had hired with an orchestra he had put together. The court found that while the conductor had clearly made the recording, it was the agent who had made the "arrangements necessary for the making of the sound recording". I thin this indicates that the courts take a high level view of "producership" and so it would be Mr Gray and Mr Coogan who made the arrangements and were the "producers" even if everything else was done by their mobile telephone company.

But wait, the story doesn't end there. There's no point asking whether something is protected by copyright, without also asking whether there has been infringement. In this case, if Mr Mulcaire had transcribed the telephone conversations, rather than just listened to them and made notes of the facts contained in them, would he have "copied" them? We are all used to the extended definition that section 17 gives to copying of a literary, dramatic, musical or artistic work, which includes "reproducing the work in any material form", but there is no such extended definition for sound recordings. To transcribe a sound recording is not to "copy" it since no new sound recording is made.

So, Mr Mulcaire might have infringed the copyright in the words recorded but that copyright didn't belong to Messrs Gray and Coogan. They probably did own the sound recording copyright, but that wasn't infringed. Their lawyers obviously did know what they were doing (as we suspected) in only suing for breach of confidence. If there's a moral here its that having multiple copyrights in the same "thing" makes for a more complicated analysis.

Digital Economy Act Costs - an unlawful Prisoners Dilemma

On 17 January 2010, the draft Online Infringement of Copyright (Initial Obligations) (Sharing of Costs) Order 2011 was laid before parliament. It is the first substantive item of secondary legislation made under the Digital Economy Act 2010 and concerns about the simplest thing possible: how much copyright owners and ISP's will have to pay under the Initial Obligations Code (IOC). Despite its simplicity it has been misdrafted and it may also be unlawful.

Background

In case you haven't been following (and why should you?), the Initial Obligations Code is intended to allow copyright owners to send "copyright infringement reports" or CIR's to ISP's, that allege, roughly speaking, that the copyright owner has reason to believe that there has been some copyright infringement associated with one of the ISP's IP addresses. Some of these reports (which and how many to be determined by later legislation) must then be reported by the ISP to its subscriber. If a subscriber collects enough CIR's over a certain period of time (again to be determined) their IP address will go on a list which the copyright owner can then demand from the ISP which will (in theory at least) allow the copyright owner to match up different CIR's to the same subscriber.

There is no such thing as a free lunch. All this has to be paid for. OFCOM which polices the system will need funds to do so, ISP's will incur costs processing CIR's and there will also be an appeal system for subscribers who believe that a CIR was given wrongly which will have to be paid for. The Order is intended to split the cost 75:25 as between copyright owners and ISP's.

I want to avoid engaging in a discussion as to whether the principle of the act is a useful way to encourage people to stop infringing copyright, or a hopelessly misguided waste of time for everybody. I think my views on that are sufficiently well known. What interests me is whether there is anything technically wrong with the order itself, and I think there may be.

A technical miscalculation

Copyright owners are supposed to pay ISP's 75% of the costs that (OFCOM thinks) they will incur in handling the CIR's. OFCOM sets a rate per CIR that copyright owners must pay, which it can change from time to time. Copyright owners pay in advance, and this is where things come unstuck.

Paragraph 2 of the Order's schedule requires the copyright owner to notify in advance any ISP to which it intends to submit CIR's and give an estimate of the number of CIR's it expects to be submitting. Before the start of each notification period, the copyright owner must submit another estimate for the coming notification period and then pay the rate set by OFCOM multiplied by:

(a)the number of copyright infringement reports which the qualifying copyright owner estimates it will make to the qualifying internet service provider under the Code during the notification period; less
(b)the difference between the number of copyright infringement reports which that qualifying copyright owner estimated it would make to that qualifying internet service provider under the Code in the previous notification period and the number it actually made to that qualifying internet service provider in that period, if lower.

Read that carefully. It means that if the copyright owner systematically under estimates the number of CIR's, it will never have to pay the difference. Indeed there is nothing to stop the copyright owner giving an estimate of "1" in each year and paying the fee for exactly one report.

The proportion of fees payable by any copyright owner (or ISP for that matter) to OFCOM are also based on the copyright owner's estimates. The actual number of CIR's submitted never enters into the calculation. This amounts to a zero-sum game between all copyright owners. Each will have an incentive to submit the lowest estimates possible.

Unless I have completely misread the Order this seems quite mad and must (surely) be the result of a misdraft.

UPDATE:

I have been told that OFCOM stated at a stakeholders' meeting that the initial obligations code would limit the number of CIR's a copyright owner could submit in any notification period to the number it had estimated at the start of that period. This would be a change from the draft code published last year and is as suggested by Malcolm Hutty in the comments below.

This does avoid the strong incentive to underestimate the number of CIR's to be submitted, but it does not leave the scheme in a satisfactory state. It is still the case that fees payable to OFCOM are based on estimates and not reality. While that will penalise a copyright owner that overestimates, it will also penalise any ISP that receives an over-estimate of CIR's. The ISP's have no recourse in such a situation.

There is nothing in the Act that prevents the costs regime from dealing with reality and apportioning costs according to actual use (with balancing payments where necessary). OFCOM's suggestion looks like a quick and dirty bug fix, rather than a well thought through statement of policy.

Is the Order lawful?

According to James Firth, it appears that a different concern has been raised by the European Commission. Does the rule on cost sharing comply with the the "Authorisation Directive" (2002/20/EC).

The Authorisation Directive is, as EU directives go, pretty straightforward. The idea behind it is that regulation of those wishing to offer public communication networks should be extremely lightweight. Member States may regulate, but only within fairly tightly defined limits. In particular they may only impose conditions on the operator of a public communications network that fall within one of a list of type of condition (found in Annex A of the Directive).

The list is fairly long, but much of it is pretty common sense. There are only two which could plausibly allow the UK via OFCOM to make ISP's pay for the operation of the Initial Obligations Code.

First, which is what is being referred to in James's post, the UK (via OFCOM) could require ISP's to pay "administrative charges" in order to be authorised to operate a public communications network. Article 12 of the Directive makes it quite clear that "administrative charges" must be just that — charges for the administration of the general authorisation scheme for public communication networks. That does not include an obligation to pay for an appeals body to hear subscriber appeals or money to OFCOM to monitor and run a scheme for assisting copyright owners enforce their rights.

Second, it is permissible to impose a condition restricting the transmission of "illegal content" (such as content which infringes copyright) and "harmful content" (such as indecent images of children). It seems to me that the CIR/initial obligations scheme of the Digital Economy Act 2010 is not a "restriction" on the transmission of illegal content, but something quite different. What is more, a requirement to pay fees cannot be a "restriction" even on a fairly relaxed reading of the Directive.

In other words I cannot see anything in the Authorisation Directive that could allow the UK to impose a requirement to pay for the initial obligations scheme that is compatible with the Authorisation Directive. Unless I am missing something, the Order, as it stands is unlawful.

Interestingly, the 1709 blog asks whether the Order complies with the Technical Standards Directive and suggests that it does, because the imposition of fees and costs under the Order is a restriction permitted by the Authorisation Directive. Alas, whatever view one might take about technical standards, I don't believe the Order complies with the Authorisation Directive.

Conclusion

The Order isn't really news and I am sure the government believes they are complying with the Authorisation Directive. We disagree and only time (and perhaps the ECJ) will tell, but it does worry me that in this already contentious area the first piece of subordinate legislation is already buggy.

A new kind of copyright? Graphical user interfaces in the ECJ.

A decision of the European Court of Justice published before Christmas concerning whether a graphical user interface is protected by copyright causes me concern. I have not seen any detailed analysis of the decision which may be due to Christmas and New Year stupor. I plead the same excuse for what follows.

The case Bezpečnostní‌ softwarová‌ asociace‌ –‌ Svaz‌·softwarové‌ ochrany v Ministerstvo kultury C-393/09 has a rather involved background an excellent account of which is provided by Martin Husovec on his blog. Very roughly speaking, a Czech organisation called the Security Software Association (BSA) wished to set up a collective licensing scheme for computer software which included the right to transmit works by cable television. The point in issue was whether the broadcast of the graphical user interface of a computer program could infringe copyright (and would therefore require licensing).

Copyright in computer programs was harmonised across the EU under the Software Directive (91/250/EEC). Article 1(2) applies the directive to "the expression in any form of a computer program". The first question referred to the ECJ was whether a graphical user interface could be described as a computer program "in any form". The ECJ said "no". One fact influencing the court was that Article 10(1) of the TRIPS Agreement requires the protection of computer programs "whether in source or object code". Clearly source and object code are examples of forms of expression of a computer program.

Similarly the 7th recital to the directive states that the term "computer program" also includes "preparatory design work leading to the development of a computer program provided that the nature of the preparatory work is such that a computer program can result from it at a later stage". The common element of these examples, thought the court, was that they lead to the reproduction or creation of a computer program. A graphical user interface does not enable the reproduction or recreation of a compute program, therefore it is not the expression of a computer program "in any form".

This all seems reasonable so far. Although a graphical user interface might contain one or more images or graphical works that would attract copyright as an "artistic work" in the normal way; attempts to claim copyright in an abstraction of the user interface — such as its mode of operation — have tended to founder in the English Courts in cases such as Nova Productions v Mazooma Games [2007] EWCA Civ 219 (concerning features of the play of two computer Pool games) and in Navitaire v Easyjet (concerning a clone of a air travel booking system).

However, the court went on to consider — although it had not been asked to do so — whether the graphical user interface of a computer program might be protected by the "ordinary" law of copyright. Here the court appears to have committed the logical fallacy of affirming the consequent. To explain why I need to say a something about earlier developments in European Copyright Law.

The Information Society Directive (Directive 2001/29/EC) ("INFOSOC") has partially harmonised other forms of copyright in the European Union. Article 2 INFOSOC requires that Member States create in their domestic law a "reproduction right" for "authors, of their works". Although described as a "right" it amounts to a prohibition on anyone else reproducing (in whole or part) a work without the author's permission. In other words it is a copyright. Although INFOSOC does not define "works" (or indeed "reproduction" or "reproduction in part"), the European Court of Justice in the earlier case of Infopag v Danske Dagblades Forening C-5/08 held that the directive only applies to a work that is "original in the sense that it is the author's own intellectual creation".

So to the apparent fallacy: in Bezpečnostní‌, the ECJ reasons thus:

The Court has held that copyright within the meaning of Directive 2001/29 is liable to apply only in relation to a subject-matter which is original in the sense that it is its author’s own intellectual creation (see, to that effect, with regard to Article 2(a) of Directive 2001/29, Infopaq International, paragraphs 33 to 37).

Consequently, the graphic user interface can, as a work, be protected by copyright if it is its author’s own intellectual creation.

In other words the court deduces from a statement of the form "P implies Q" a conclusion that "Q implies P". Infopaq establishes that being the author's "own intellectual creation" is a necessary condition. That does not mean it is a sufficient one.

Now the judges of the ECJ are, for the most part, bright and well educated. They will be well aware of the dangers of affirming the consequent. I think it is safe to assume they don't mean quite what they appear to be saying. In particular, the idea that any form of intellectual creation is protected by the general law of copyright would be quite revolutionary.

For example, INFOSOC does not exclude from copyright protection inventions that could form the subject of a patent, or designs that might be protectable under one of the European design rights. Although both might well be some author's "own intellectual creation", I doubt very much that copyright is intended by anyone to extend so far.

In English law merely being creatively original is not enough for a work to obtain copyright protection. For example in Creation Records v News Group Newspapers [1997] EMLR 444, the judge held that it was not even arguable that the scene for the Oasis album cover of Be Here Now could be protected by copyright. It simply did not fit into any existing protected category — and the record company attempted to argue that it was a dramatic work, a work of artistic craftsmanship or even a collage.

So I assume (in hope) that all the ECJ are guilty of is a failure to show working and that they have in mind some other criteria that must be satisfied before a work is protected by copyright. What those criteria might be the ECJ do not say which leaves me with the following questions: if a graphical user interface is protected by copyright, what kind of a work is it and what about it is protected?

It may be possible to gain some inkling as to what is in the ECJ's mind from their answer to the second question posed to them. They were asked if graphical user interfaces were protected by copyright in computer programs (the first question), would television broadcasting of the graphical user interface be an infringement of that copyright (by communication of that work to the public)? Although the ECJ had answered "no" to the first question, ever helpful they considered whether, on the assumption that graphical user interfaces were protected by "ordinary" copyright, TV broadcasting of them could constitute infringement. Again the ECJ thought "no" because the viewers "cannot use the feature of that interface which consists in enabling interaction between the computer program and the user".

It seems from this that the ECJ have in mind not the graphical elements of the user interface, but something about its operational behaviour. A sort of copyright in interactivity, which cannot of course be infringed by TV broadcasting because you cannot interact with the subject of the broadcast. If that is what the ECJ have in mind, then I am troubled.

First, what kind of a copyright is this? Is it an artistic work, a literary work or something else (a work of artistic craftsmanship perhaps)? For the purposes of English law this matters. Different species of work are protected in different ways, even if the differences are sometimes rather subtle. The ECJ do not tell us the answer to this question.

Second, where is the graphical user interface "fixed". In English law a work is only protected if and when it is fixed in some permanent form. If I make a really excellent speech, I will have copyright in the speech when, but only when, it is recorded. Similarly if a group of musicians create an exciting musical work while jamming together in the studio, the work will not be protected until fixed in some form. Is the graphical user interface fixed in the computer program's source code? If so, copying the code may be an infringement of the copyright in the graphical user interface. If it is not fixed in the code, where is it?

Lastly, there are numerous special rules that apply to copyright in computer programs. For example there are rights to make back-up copies, to test and to decompile for certain purposes. If the ECJ is right, these would not apply to a user interface which represented an author's own intellectual creation. In English law, moral rights do not apply to computer programs, but would (presumably) apply to a suitable user interface. Both of these conclusions could be awkward.

Not all is bleak. The ECJ emphasize that when assessing whether a graphical user interface is protected by copyright as its author's "own intellectual creation", a national court should ignore components of an interface that are "differentiated only by their technical character". It will not be every, or every aspect, of a user interface that will be protected. Despite this limitation I suspect that this decision, if taken to its logical conclusion and followed by later cases, will require some careful rethinking about copyright in the computer industry. Just what we need.

ACS:Law - at last, a hearing

UPDATE: For professional reasons I won't be commenting on this case for the time being. Please feel free to continue to comment on this post, but don't feel insulted if I do not respond.

After my recent post on ACS:Law's failure to obtain default judgments in some of their claims. Another judgment Media C.A.T Limited v Alan Billington [2010] EWPCC 18 of the patents county court has been pointed out to me.

The facts of the particular case are not particularly crucial. The Defendant, an Aaron Billington, complains amongst other things that there is no "Alan Billington" and that he did not receive a "response pack" (which comes with the Claim Form and which includes a form for acknowledging service). Although he does not say so, there also seems to be a complaint that ACS:Law did not follow good pre-action practice.

What is interesting is that the judge reviewed cases pending before the court (27 in all) and has ordered that a hearing for directions be held at 10:30am on 17th January 2011. At the hearing the court can decide how the cases should be dealt with. Clearly if you are (or know someone who is) one of the defendants and there's a reasonable defence to the claim, or the sum claimed is larger than the claimant is entitled to, then it would be a very good idea to attend the hearing and have your (or their) voice heard.

Although courts do have a power to make orders on their own initiative, without being asked to do so by the parties, many courts do not seem to use this power as much as, perhaps, Lord Woolf envisaged when he created the civil procedure rules. The hearing proves to be interesting as it may give a much broader picture of how ACS:Law are progressing their cases and it may also help the court to tidy up what sounds (from the last judgment anyway) like something of a mess even from a purely technical perspective. Mildly good news I think.

ACS:Law come unstuck

Earlier this month ACS:Law suffered a set-back in their campaign against alleged copyright infringement through peer-to-peer file sharing. ACS:Law (or more pedantically, their clients) had tried to obtain judgments in default against 8 defendants, but failed for a variety of reasons in each case. The judge in the Patents County Court criticised the nature of their claim and the way in which the applications were brought — reported as Media C.A.T Limited v A (and others) [2010] EWPCC 17.

Default judgment is a speedy way for claimants to obtain judgment without a trial. In most cases a defendant served with a claim form and particulars of claim is supposed to acknowledge service and then file a defence. If not acknowledgement or defence is forthcoming the claimant can ask the court to give it judgment in default.

This is where ACS:Law start to come unstuck. In 3 of the cases a defence had been filed in court. So default judgment does not apply. In a further 3 of the cases there was no evidence on the court file that the claim form and particulars of claim had been served on the defendant. It is ordinarily the court's job to serve these documents, but there's no presumption that it has. In my practice I have come across situations where some administrative mistake has been made and the court has failed to do so. Whatever the reason, it is bad practice to issue requests for default judgment without checking with the court that no defence has been filed. A slap on the wrist for ACS:Law in my view. As the judge said "The requests for judgment should never have been filed."

There is an easy way and a not so easy way to ask the court for a default judgment. The easy way simply requires the claimant to file a request to the court. The defendant does not have to be informed of the request and will ordinarily know nothing about it. The not so easy way requires a formal application, with evidence, to the court, which must be served on the defendant, who will therefore have an opportunity to defend against it.

The "easy way" is only available where the claim is for one or more of: a specified amount of money, an amount of money to be decided by the court, delivery of goods where the claim form gives the defendant the alternative of paying their value (CPR 12.4). In each case, the claim was not only for damages for copyright infringement (including additional damages for flagrant infringement), interest and costs but also for:

"a permanent injunction pursuant to the inherent jurisdiction of the Court; ordering the defendant to take reasonable steps to safeguard their internet connection being used, either through the defendant's personal computer and/or third parties taking advantage of the defendant's unsecured wireless connection to repeat the infringement of the claimants copyright in the Work(s)."

Ooops. That doesn't appear to comply with CRP 12.4. The judge thought not. ACS:Law ought to have made a formal application rather than merely filed a request and that would have alerted the defendants to the possibility of default judgment and given them an opportunity to respond. The judge had serious doubts as to whether, in peer to peer file sharing cases, default judgment ought to be given on request without a formal application. He said:

In all these circumstances, a default judgment arrived at without notice by means of an essentially administrative procedure, even one restricted to a financial claim, seems to me to be capable of working real injustice.

Most interesting for me are the criticism that the judge made of the way in which the case was pleaded (one assumes by ACS:Law, but certainly on their behalf).

• The particulars of claim stated that the claimant "represents" the owner of copyright in the films that were the subject of the claim. Only the owner of the copyright or a licensee (and for a non-exclusive licensee only if certain conditions are met) has a right to sue for copyright infringement. Thus the pleadings were defective.
• The allegations relate to unsecured internet connections. It is unclear whether the owner of (say) an open wifi can be held responsible for copyright infringement effected using that connection.
• The claimant's plea was that the defendant was guilty of "allowing" copyright infringement, which, as the judge put it, "is simply wrong". The term used by the act is "authorising", which is rather different.

and more of the same. In short: even accepting all of ACS:Law's allegations, they do not appear to have a proper case. To succeed they would at least have to amend their claim, assuming they have a case at all.

A health warning: this decision is made by a county court. It is not, strictly speaking, binding on any future court. It does however illustrate the extremely dubious nature of the claims being put before the court by ACS:Law and will, I hope, encourage defendants to be more confident in resisting them. The list of defects in the pleadings might make a useful basis for an application to strike out against the claimant.

Hat tip to Philippe Bradley for pointing this case out to me.